I understand that a woman can not refrain from having intercourse with his husband without any sharai/medical reason and she is sinful if she refuse. But does that allow the husband to have forceful intercourse with her which causes her discomfort? Please give reference to marja and ahadees?
أعوذ بالله من الشيطان الرجيم
بِسْمِ ٱللَّٰهِ ٱلرَّحْمَٰنِ ٱلرَّحِيمِ
As Salaamu Alaikum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuh,
Based on your specific question and information provided.
From the Jurisprudence Perspective: Husband can not hurt / harm the wife.
والله العالم
(and Allah(awj) Knows best)
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